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Latest Released CSI CSC2 Latest Demo - CSC2 Canadian Securities Course Exam2

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CSI Canadian Securities Course Exam2 Sample Questions (Q111-Q116):

NEW QUESTION # 111
When acting as a principal, how do investment dealers generate revenue?

A. Through spreads on buy/sell prices.
B. Thrown tracers.
C. Through brokerage changes.
D. Through commissions

Answer: A

Explanation:
When acting as a principal, investment dealers buy and sell securities for their own account. They generate revenue by earning a spread, which is the difference between the price at which they buy securities (bid price) and the price at which they sell them (ask price). This is distinct from their role as an agent, where revenue is earned through commissions on trades executed on behalf of clients.
* A. Through commissions: Commissions are earned when acting as an agent, not as a principal.
* B. Through tracers: This term does not apply to revenue generation.
* C. Through brokerage charges: Brokerage charges relate to fees imposed on client accounts, not principal trading spreads.
Reference:CSC Volume 1, Chapter 1, "The Principal and Agency Functions of Investment Dealers" explains how spreads generate revenue in principal trades.

NEW QUESTION # 112
When considering the overall investment objectives of liquid alternatives, what time horizon is the most appropriate for retail investors when investing in these funds?

A. Medium-term
B. Short-to medium-term
C. Long-term
D. Short-term

Answer: C

Explanation:
Liquid alternatives, also known as alternative mutual funds, combine features of traditional mutual funds with hedge fund-like strategies. They provide access to alternative investments such as derivatives, short-selling, and leverage while adhering to stricter regulations for retail investors. These funds are designed to achieve diversification and risk-adjusted returns that are less correlated with traditional stock and bond markets.
When considering liquid alternatives, a long-term investment horizon is most appropriate for retail investors.
The key reasons include:
* Volatility and Complexity: Liquid alternatives can be more volatile than traditional funds due to their use of sophisticated strategies like leverage or derivatives. This requires a long-term outlook to weather short-term fluctuations.
* Objective of Absolute Returns: Liquid alternatives are often structured to provide positive returns over a full market cycle, which typically spans several years.
* Diversification Benefits: The risk mitigation offered by these funds unfolds over time as they reduce the portfolio's overall exposure to specific market conditions.
Investors seeking short-term gains may not benefit as much due to the time required for the strategies employed to materialize their intended results. Long-term objectives align better with the nature of liquid alternatives and their ability to smooth returns.
References:
* CSC Volume 2, Chapter 20: "Alternative Investments: Strategies and Performance," discusses the structure and time horizon considerations for liquid alternatives.

NEW QUESTION # 113
Franco purchased an ETF in his non-registered account, and his total adjusted cost base in year 1 was
$30,000. The ETF distributes income each year. And this reinvested distribution total was $1,750. The ETF also distributes a return of capital of $850. What would Franco's total capital gain be if the sold the ETF for
$39,000?

A. $8,100
B. $,250
C. $9,000
D. $6,400

Answer: A

Explanation:
To calculate Franco's total capital gain, we adjust the adjusted cost base (ACB) for reinvested distributions and return of capital (ROC).
* Initial ACB: $30,000.
* Add Reinvested Distributions: Reinvested distributions increase the ACB.30,000+1,750=31,75030,000
+ 1,750 = 31,75030,000+1,750=31,750
* Subtract Return of Capital: ROC reduces the ACB.31,750#850=30,90031,750 - 850 = 30,90031,750
#850=30,900
* Calculate the Capital Gain: Subtract the adjusted ACB from the sale price.39,000#30,900=8,10039,000
- 30,900 = 8,10039,000#30,900=8,100
* A. $1,250: Incorrect, likely a miscalculation of adjusted ACB.
* B. $8,100: Correct, based on accurate ACB adjustments and sale price.
* C. $6,400: Incorrect, ignores reinvested distributions.
* D. $9,000: Incorrect, ignores the impact of ROC adjustments on ACB.
:
CSC Volume 2, Chapter 19: Adjusted Cost Base Calculations, which explains the impact of reinvested distributions and ROC on capital gains.

NEW QUESTION # 114
What responsibility falls on the buy-side portfolio manager?

A. To maintain constant contact with the investment dealer counterparties.
B. To provide pertinent market information to the departmentheads of various asset classes.
C. To busy securities in the market on demand to maintain liquidity in a security.
D. To inform the trade about the market conditions and risks.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Thebuy-side portfolio manageris responsible for managing investments on behalf of institutional or retail clients. A critical responsibility is to provide the buy-side trader withpertinent market information and analysis of risksto ensure that trades are executed effectively and aligned with the investment strategy.
* Explanation of Options:
* A. Maintain Liquidity: Incorrect. This is more relevant to market makers or sell-side dealers who provide liquidity in the market.
* B. Contact with Dealers: Incorrect. While buy-side managers interact with dealers, their primary role is to strategize, not to maintain constant contact.
* C. Informing Traders: Correct. Buy-side managers analyze risks and market conditions and pass this information to traders for execution.
* D. Provide Information to Department Heads: Incorrect. This is not a core responsibility of buy- side portfolio managers.
References:
* CSC Volume 2, Chapter 27: Responsibilities of buy-side portfolio managers and their interactions with traders.

NEW QUESTION # 115
What type of return is calculated for a security held for 18 months if no adjustments to the return are made?

A. Effective rate of return.
B. Annualized total return.
C. Holding period return.
D. Nominal rate of return.

Answer: C

Explanation:
The return on a security held for a specific period, such as 18 months, without adjusting for time or compounding, is referred to as theholding period return (HPR). This straightforward calculation assesses total returns over the period of ownership.
1. Definition of Holding Period Return:The HPR is calculated as:
HPR=(Ending Value - Initial Value) + Dividends ReceivedInitial ValueHPR = rac{{ ext{(Ending Value - Initial Value) + Dividends Received}}}{{ ext{Initial Value}}}HPR=Initial Value (Ending Value - Initial Value) + Dividends Received This measure evaluates total growth, disregarding compounding or annualization.
2. Other Return Types (Incorrect Answers):
* Effective Rate of Return:Reflects annualized returns considering compounding within a year. It is not applicable to non-annualized periods like 18 months.
* Nominal Rate of Return:The unadjusted rate of return without accounting for inflation. While related, it does not specifically refer to the holding period concept.
* Annualized Total Return:This adjusts returns to reflect an annual basis, assuming constant performance throughout the period. It is unsuitable for raw, unadjusted returns like the HPR.
References from CSC Study Documents:
* Chapter 15, Volume 2: Covers the calculation of different return metrics, with detailed examples of HPR and its application.
* Portfolio Return Analysis inSection 15explains the non-compounded nature of holding period calculations.
Let me know if further details or clarifications are needed!

NEW QUESTION # 116
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